
superbass spec ( ****** )
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I hear ya Rob, I love the "sssShink" on the high note @ .50 from the previous version...the latest one sounds a touch creamier...could be just the vibe Mark had while he was playing it? Still not sure 'cause the neck p/u tone fucks with my ear and I can't hold the reference point after that...if that makes any sense? 

Fuck it.
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100K NFB resistor on the 16 ohm tap is sonically equivalent to a 50K on the 4 ohm tap, this was how Larry defined it when I asked him. It was the square of 50 and 4ohm to get 100K and 16 ohm, inverse would be the square root.rockstah wrote:i remember Larry talking about it. something like 141k on the 8 ohm tap would be the same as 47k on the 4 ohm tap. i forget the math. he should chime in.rgalpin wrote:a sound that is hairier AND tighter is pretty elusive. usually i find that when i add hair from the presence / NFB circuit things start falling apart - start to lose the tight backbone in a compromise to get more grind.4ohm is hairier but as well i think its tighter too.
i have read some debate about whether there is a percieveable difference between switching from the 8 ohm to the 4 ohm tap vs doubling the size of the NFB resistor. never played around with it though.
do you think using the 4 ohm tap keeps things tighter even as you turn the presence up?
perhaps i should try it on the 8 ohm tap and see what i get.
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Here's Larry's exact quote:
100K on the 16 ohms is the same effect as a 50K on the 4 ohms
When you have a given FB resistor (i.e. 47K) on 8 ohms, to calculate the equivalent on 16 ohms, multiply the given value with the square root of 2 - to get the equivalent on 4 ohms, divide the given value by the square root of 2
Just a simple math
Larry
100K on the 16 ohms is the same effect as a 50K on the 4 ohms
When you have a given FB resistor (i.e. 47K) on 8 ohms, to calculate the equivalent on 16 ohms, multiply the given value with the square root of 2 - to get the equivalent on 4 ohms, divide the given value by the square root of 2
Just a simple math
Larry